A couple of weeks ago the apparent banning of certain words
in the US caused considerable concern. The context of this news report is
important, as this article makes clear. So it’s probably a lot of fuss about nothing, although as a
signal of what is going on in within the US government it may point to a
worrying trend.
I don’t agree with banning language in general but conversations
about this report, with particular reference to the term “evidence based”, have
prompted some reflection. I think it would be no great loss if “evidence based”
fell out of use since its meaning is unhelpful. (I’m not planning to delve into
philosophy, law or any relevant literature: these are just some fairly random
reflections, based on my own experience, and occasionally informed by Google.
Does this count as “evidence based”? )
“Evidence based” usually precedes the word “policy” or
“practice”.
Evidence based practice seems intuitively like a Good Thing,
especially in the field of medicine. You’d probably want your medical
practitioner to be using treatments that are tried and tested, which is what
the description implies.
Google Books Ngram Viewer shows that there was a very steep
rise in the use of the term through the 1990s, levelling out since 2004.
Medical practice is where the term “evidence based” first arose, which is
slightly worrying, given that it is so recent.
What was medical practice based on before? According to Wikipedia evidence based practice is
contrasted to “rules of thumb, tradition and folklore”. (Folklore must surely have
its place: aspirin is derived from plants in the willow family which were used
in folk remedies long before the 19th century discovery of salicylic
acid. )
I don’t know anything about the politics of medical research
but some superficial investigation online suggests that the term was introduced
by Cochrane who advocated randomised controlled trials to support medical
practice. You can read about him here and here.
You can also search the Cochrane database.
But I’m more interested in the application of the term to
policy because I think this is more problematic. Googling “evidence based
policy” throws up a huge number of links
(and alerted me to this book which looks very interesting and apparently critiques the
Cochrane approach.)
There is an extensive literature on “evidence based policy”.
Ngram shows that the term developed at around the same time as “evidence based
practice”. Possibly the widespread adoption of “evidence based practice” led to
some questioning of the evidence base of health service policy.
As individuals, we have our own criteria for judging the
quality of arguments put to us. These may vary widely because such criteria
will not be based solely on scientific evidence that we know about but will also
be moderated by our own beliefs. (The
balance may not always be in favour of scientific evidence: see, for example,
climate change deniers. And there is still a Flat Earth Society.)
So the value of evidence in supporting arguments is likely
to vary at an individual level depending on all sorts of contextual factors.
What about at the broader level of society?
If evidence based policy is a Good Thing, what evidence will be used and
how will it be used in developing policy? How will ideology and evidence be
balanced? Does “evidence based” mean that evidence outweighs ideology?
Here are two examples of policy making relating to corporate
governance. As far as I’m aware, neither of
these have been claimed specifically to be evidence based, although they clearly are - to a
varying extent.
1. The establishment of the Cadbury Committee was driven by the
agenda of professional accountancy bodies, seeking to deflect attention from
criticism of auditing , following several financial scandals. The process of preparing the draft report
involved the chair talking to interested parties - the intention was to produce
a code based on best practice so these were generally practitioners of
corporate governance. He also read relevant material and with the help of the
secretary produced papers for discussion by the committee. Comments were
invited on the draft report and the Code and recommendations were prepared
thereafter. The evidence used did not include academic research: notably,
academic studies had already questioned the monitoring efficacy of NEDs, which
was a key assumption of the Cadbury Code.
2. The original Davies report on board gender diversity
cited supporting academic research but ignored empirical studies which raised
questions about the possibly negative consequences of implementing requirements
about board composition.
Each of these policy developments involved a process.
Consultations took place. How reliable is the consultation process in
collecting evidence? That’s difficult to judge because the process is often opaque. What are the evidence boundaries? Will gaps
be identified? A year ago I was involved
in analysing responses to a UK government committee consultation. At the behest
of the committee secretary, these were summarised according to respondent
categories. One obvious category of interested parties had not provided any
responses: although I drew this to the attention of the secretary, I don’t know
if it was noted in the papers provided for committee members.
And who decides which interested parties will be consulted? And how will they be consulted? And what weight will be given to their views? How will the information they provide be presented to the ultimate decision makers?
All policy is evidence based. Did the policy arise out of the evidence? Or was the policy developed and evidence collected to support its advancement? Who decides
what the evidence shall be, how it shall be collected and how it shall be
interpreted? I think the term “evidence
based” implies that this process is neutral and objective. I don’t think it is. You can’t take the politics out of policy.
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